Subpart 4 — Private Operators

“should” and “must” shall be read as “shall”;

“operator” and “aircraft operator” shall be read as “private operator”; and

“authority”, “competent aviation authority” and “operating authority” shall be read as “Minister”.

a large aeroplane;

a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane; or

a turbine-powered pressurized aeroplane certificated for more than six passenger seats.

an air operator who operates the aircraft in accordance with the requirements of Part VII; or

a person who operates the aircraft under a flight permit issued under section 507.04.

the applicant’s legal name and, if any, trade name;

the applicant’s contact information;

the names of the operations manager, chief pilot and maintenance manager;

a description of the proposed area of operation, using the chart depicted in the Index to Application of Supplementary Procedures in ICAO Document 7030, entitled Regional Supplementary Procedures;

the location of the applicant’s main base and, if any, sub-bases; and

for each aircraft that will be operated, the aircraft type, the nationality mark and the registration mark.

identifies the activity referred to in Division IV that the applicant wishes to carry out; and

includes a copy of the part of the private operator’s operations manual that sets out the processes, practices and procedures relating to the special authorization requested.

holds a private operator registration document;

is able to meet the requirements of Division IV relating to the special authorization requested; and

has an operations manual that sets out the processes, practices and procedures that are necessary to meet the requirements of Division IV relating to the special authorization requested.

identifies the functions that may be assigned;

identifies either by name or by position the persons to whom those functions may be assigned; and

describes the scope of the assignment.

all the operational requirements specified in this Subpart are met;

each aircraft is operated within the weight and balance limits specified in the aircraft flight manual;

the names of the persons on board an aircraft are recorded by the private operator before each flight; and

search and rescue authorities are notified in a timely manner if a flight is overdue or missing.

pilot self-dispatch procedures that set out the following elements:

co-authority dispatch procedures that set out the following elements:

contain aircraft operating procedures that are consistent with those contained in the aircraft flight manual;

contain, if the aircraft flight manual is not carried on board the aircraft, the aircraft performance data and limitations specified in that manual, and clearly identify them as aircraft flight manual requirements;

contain the private operator’s standard operating procedures, if any; and

identify the aircraft to which it relates.

the date of the flight;

the aircraft’s nationality mark and registration mark;

the name of the pilot-in-command;

the departure aerodrome;

the destination aerodrome;

the alternate aerodrome, if any;

the estimated flight time;

the fuel endurance;

the weight of the fuel on board the aircraft;

the zero fuel weight of the aircraft;

the take-off weight and centre of gravity of the aircraft;

the number of persons on board the aircraft;

the proposed time of departure; and

the estimated time of arrival.

the standard deviation of the lateral track deviations is less than 6.3 nautical miles;

the proportion of the total flight time that is spent by the aircraft at a distance of 30 or more nautical miles from the cleared track is less than 5.3 x 10^-4; and

the proportion of the total flight time that is spent by the aircraft at a distance of 50 to 70 nautical miles from the cleared track is less than 1.3 x 10^-4.

lateral navigation (LNAV);

lateral navigation/vertical navigation (LNAV/VNAV);

localizer performance without vertical guidance (LP); and

localizer performance with vertical guidance (LPV).

the private operator is authorized to do so under a special authorization;

the estimated flight time is not more than six hours and the departure aerodrome is located in North America, Bermuda or the Caribbean islands;

the forecast or reported weather at the destination aerodrome, from one hour before until one hour after the estimated time of arrival, does not include

the destination aerodrome

every flight crew member has received training, for which the validity period has not expired, in the conduct of an IFR flight when an alternate aerodrome has not been designated in the IFR flight plan or in the IFR flight itinerary.

the private operator is authorized under a special authorization to operate the aircraft in accordance with NAT-MNPS;

every flight crew member has received NAT-MNPS training, for which the validity period has not expired, in

subject to subsections (2) and (4), the aircraft is equipped with at least two independent long-range navigation systems.

a Canadian Technical Standard Order (CAN-TSO) design approval has been issued in respect of the GNSS receiver; or

the GNSS receiver meets the performance requirements of Technical Standard Order TSO-C196a, Airborne Supplemental Navigation Sensors for Global Positioning System Equipment Using Aircraft-Based Augmentation, published by the Federal Aviation Administration of the United States.

the activity is subject to

in the case referred to in subparagraph (a)(i), the operational and technical requirements are necessary for the conduct of flights abroad or in Canada by private operators, and those flights can be conducted in a safe manner; and

in the case referred to in subparagraph (a)(ii), the operational and technical requirements and risk mitigation measures ensure the safety of the flights conducted by private operators and will not have an adverse effect on aviation safety.

the private operator is authorized to carry out the activity under a special authorization;

every flight crew member has received, if applicable, the training specified by the Minister under subsection (3) in respect of the activity, and the validity period for that training has not expired; and

every flight crew member has demonstrated to the Minister the ability to carry out the activity in accordance with the operational and technical requirements referred to in subparagraph (1)(a)(i) or (ii), as applicable, and to take the measures that are necessary to manage or mitigate the risks associated with that activity.

any training that is recommended by the civil aviation authority of a foreign state or by ICAO in respect of the activity;

the risks and hazards associated with the activity with respect to the safety of the aircraft, persons or property; and

the level of safety required by the activity.

safety belts are adjusted and fastened in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(a), infants are held in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(b), and persons using child restraint systems are secured in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(c);

subject to subsection (5), seat backs are secured in the upright position;

chair tables are stowed;

carry-on baggage is stowed; and

no seat located at an emergency exit is occupied by a passenger — including a passenger who has not been informed as to how that exit operates — whose presence in that seat could adversely affect the safety of passengers or crew members during an evacuation.

passengers have been directed to

if a seat located at an emergency exit is occupied by a passenger whose presence in that seat could adversely affect the safety of passengers or crew members during an evacuation, the passenger has been directed to move to another seat.

direct passengers to

if a seat located at an emergency exit is occupied by a passenger whose presence in that seat could adversely affect the safety of passengers or crew members during an evacuation, direct the passenger to move to another seat.

adjust and fasten their safety belts in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(a), hold infants in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(b), and secure persons using child restraint systems in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(c); and

stow their carry-on baggage.

the passenger is not seated in a location that would restrict the evacuation of the aircraft;

the passenger is not seated in a row that is next to or immediately in front of an emergency exit; and

the seat immediately behind the passenger’s seat is vacant.

in order for persons on board the aircraft to be notified promptly of a situation that could threaten their safety, two-way communication is maintained between the ground personnel supervising the fuelling and a person on board the aircraft who has received training in emergency evacuation procedures for that aircraft type;

no ground power generator or other electrical ground power supply is being connected to or disconnected from the aircraft;

no combustion heater installed on the aircraft is being used;

every combustion heater used in the vicinity of the aircraft has a marking, applied by the manufacturer, indicating that the heater is manufactured to Canadian Standards Association (CSA) or Underwriters Laboratories of Canada (ULC) standards;

no high-energy-emitting equipment, including high-frequency radios and airborne weather radar, is being operated unless the aircraft flight manual contains procedures for its use during fuelling and those procedures are followed;

no aircraft battery is being removed or being installed;

no external battery charger is being operated or is being connected to or disconnected from an aircraft battery;

no auxiliary power unit having an efflux that discharges into the fuelling safety zone is started after filler caps are removed or fuelling connections are made;

no auxiliary power unit that is stopped is restarted until the flow of fuel has ceased, unless the aircraft flight manual establishes procedures for restarting the unit during fuelling and those procedures are followed;

no tool that is likely to produce a spark or electric arc is being used;

no photographic equipment is being used within the fuelling safety zone;

the fuelling is suspended if there is a lightning discharge within eight kilometres of the aerodrome;

the fuelling is carried out in accordance with the aircraft manufacturer’s instructions;

the aircraft emergency lighting system, if any, is armed or on;

“no smoking” signs, if any, on board the aircraft are illuminated;

no passenger is smoking or otherwise producing a source of ignition;

two exits, one of which is the door through which passengers embarked, are free of obstruction and are available for immediate use by passengers and crew members in the event of an evacuation;

the escape route from each of the exits referred to in paragraph (q) is free of obstruction and is available for immediate use by passengers and crew members in the event of an evacuation;

a person who is authorized by the private operator to suspend fuelling is on board the aircraft and is ready to direct the suspension of fuelling if a requirement of this subsection ceases to be met;

a means of evacuation is in place at the door used for the embarkation or disembarkation of passengers, is free of obstruction and is available for immediate use by passengers and crew members;

the person on board the aircraft who has received the training referred to in paragraph (a) is ready to initiate and oversee an evacuation and is at or near the door referred to in paragraph (v); and

the embarkation door is open, unless

the requirements set out in subsection 604.83(1) are met;

the aircraft flight manual indicates that the engine that is running may be used as an auxiliary power unit; and

the engine that is running has a propeller brake and that brake is set.

when and where carry-on baggage is to be stowed;

when and how to fasten, adjust and release safety belts and, if any, shoulder harnesses;

when seat backs are to be secured in the upright position and chair tables are to be stowed;

the location of emergency exits and, in the case of a passenger seated next to such an exit, how that exit operates;

the requirement to comply with the instructions given by crew members and with the “fasten safety belt” and “no smoking” signs, and the location of those signs;

the location and operation of the passenger oxygen system, if any, including

the use of life preservers, including how to remove them from their packaging, how to don them and when to inflate them;

when and where smoking is prohibited;

the location of the emergency equipment required under sections 602.62, 602.63, 604.116 and 604.117, and how to access that equipment;

the portable electronic devices that may be used, and when they may be used; and

the location and purpose of the safety features card.

the flight is the second or subsequent flight in a series of flights;

no additional passengers have embarked on board the aircraft; and

a crew member has verified that

fastening, adjusting and releasing safety belts and, if any, shoulder harnesses;

operating each type of floor-level exit and window emergency exit;

identifying the location of the passenger oxygen system, if any, and performing the actions necessary in order to

identifying the location of life preservers, if any, removing them from their packaging, donning them and inflating them; and

identifying the location of the emergency equipment required by sections 602.62, 602.63, 604.116 and 604.117 and accessing that equipment.

communication of the elements of the safety briefing referred to in subsection (1) that

communication of

in the case of a mobility-impaired passenger who would require assistance in order to move to an exit in the event of an emergency, communication of

in the case of a visually impaired passenger,

in the case of a passenger who is responsible for another person on board the aircraft, communication of

in the case of an unaccompanied minor, communication of the need to pay close attention to the safety briefing.

the safest route for passengers to take in order to move away from the aircraft; and

the hazards, if any, associated with the aircraft, including the location of Pitot tubes, propellers, rotors and engine intakes.

in the case of an aircraft configured for 19 or fewer passenger seats,

in the case of an aircraft configured for more than 19 passenger seats,

1,200 hours in a period of 12 consecutive months;

300 hours in a period of 90 consecutive days;

120 hours in a period of 30 consecutive days; or

8 hours in a period of 24 consecutive hours, if the assignment is for a single-pilot IFR flight.

14 consecutive hours in a period of 24 consecutive hours; or

15 consecutive hours in a period of 24 consecutive hours, if

the minimum rest period provided under subsection (2);

any additional rest period required by this Division; and

any period with no assigned duties provided under section 604.104.

the pilot-in-command, after consultation with the other flight crew members, considers it safe to do so;

the flight duty period is extended as a result of an unforeseen operational circumstance that occurs after the beginning of the flight duty period;

the next minimum rest period is extended by an amount of time that is at least equal to the length of the extension of the flight duty period; and

the pilot-in-command notifies the private operator of the unforeseen operational circumstances and of the length of the extension of the flight duty period.

the private operator has a controlled-rest-on-the-flight-deck program that includes the following elements:

every participating crew member has received training relating to the elements of the controlled-rest-on-the-flight-deck program.

the order in which the periods of controlled rest are to be taken by the flight crew members;

the planned duration of each period of controlled rest;

the circumstances under which a resting flight crew member is to be woken;

the procedures for the transfer of flight controls and duties; and

flight attendant duties in relation to a controlled rest.

prior to each controlled rest on the flight deck,

remain on the flight deck during the controlled rest.

perform the duties of the resting flight crew member;

ensure that the controlled rest is taken only during the cruise portion of the flight and is completed at least 30 minutes before top of descent;

ensure that the period of controlled rest is of no more than 45 minutes in duration;

ensure that the resting flight crew member is awake for at least 15 minutes before the resumption of duties, except in abnormal or emergency conditions; and

after the completion of the controlled rest, give an operational briefing to the flight crew member who has taken the controlled rest.

a life raft repair kit;

a bailing bucket and a sponge;

a whistle;

a waterproof flashlight;

a supply of potable water — based on 500 mL per person and calculated using the rated capacity of the life raft — or a means of desalting or distilling salt water that can provide 500 mL of potable water per person;

a waterproof survival manual that contains information about how to use the survival equipment;

a first aid kit that contains antiseptic swabs, burn dressing compresses, bandages and motion sickness pills; and

a pyrotechnic signalling device, or an aviation visual distress signal that has a marking applied by the manufacturer indicating that the signal meets the requirements of CAN-TSO-C168, a signalling mirror and a dye marker for visually signalling distress.

a supply of potable water — based on 500 mL per person and calculated using the rated capacity of the life raft — or a means of desalting or distilling salt water that can provide 500 mL of potable water per person; and

motion sickness pills.

configured for 0 to 50 passenger seats, one kit;

configured for 51 to 150 passenger seats, two kits;

configured for 151 to 250 passenger seats, three kits; and

configured for 251 or more passenger seats, four kits.

the first aid kits referred to in subsection (1) are distributed throughout the cabin and are readily available to crew members and passengers;

each first aid kit is clearly identified; and

if a first aid kit is stowed in a bin or compartment, the bin or compartment is clearly marked as containing a first aid kit.

at the entry into each Class A, B, E and F cargo compartment accessible to crew members during flight;

at the site of each hand-held fire extinguisher that is located in an isolated galley;

on the flight deck; and

at the site of each hand-held fire extinguisher that is required under section 604.119.

the person

the person is authorized to do so under a written agreement that

the name of any person authorized under section 571.11 to sign a maintenance release under section 571.10; and

the name of any person who has performed elementary work in accordance with subparagraph 604.128(1)(a)(ii).

in the case of training in the performance of the emergency procedures referred to in subsection 604.169(2) and in subparagraphs 604.179(z)(viii) and (ix), and the high altitude indoctrination training referred to in section 604.176, the first day of the thirty-seventh month after the month in which the training was completed;

in the case of all other training, the first day of the thirteenth month after the month in which the training was completed; and

in the case of a competency check or pilot proficiency check, the first day of the twenty-fifth month after the month in which the competency check or pilot proficiency check was successfully completed.

36 months, in the case of training in the performance of the emergency procedures referred to in subsection 604.169(2) and in subparagraphs 604.179(z)(viii) and (ix), and the high altitude indoctrination training referred to in section 604.176;

12 months, in the case of all other training; and

24 months, in the case of a competency check or pilot proficiency check.

the application for extension is made during the validity period; and

the applicant demonstrates that there has been no reasonable opportunity to renew the training, competency check or pilot proficiency check within the 90 days before the day on which the training, competency check or pilot proficiency check would otherwise expire.

the training received by the person is in respect of the aircraft type that the person will operate and the private operator’s area of operation;

the validity period, if any, of that training has not expired; and

the private operator provides the person with training in

the pilot proficiency check or competency check was conducted using an aircraft of the same type that the person will operate;

the validity period of the pilot proficiency check or competency check has not expired; and

the private operator provides the person with training in respect of

the person

the person has demonstrated to the private operator knowledge of

coordinate the activities that affect operational control, including activities relating to

implement the private operator’s policies and procedures to ensure that the private operator’s operations meet the requirements of this Subpart;

if the operations manager receives aeronautical information that indicates a risk to the safety of a flight, ensure that corrective actions are taken to manage or mitigate the risk;

ensure the dissemination of aircraft safety information to the private operator’s personnel; and

implement the emergency response procedures referred to in paragraph 604.203(1)(e).

the person meets the requirements of paragraphs 604.143(1)(a), (b), (d) and (e) for acting as pilot-in-command on an aircraft operated by the private operator; and

the person has demonstrated to the private operator knowledge of

develop standard operating procedures in respect of aircraft operated by the private operator;

verify whether the aerodromes and routes for aircraft used by the private operator are suitable for aircraft operated by the private operator;

ensure that the operational requirements of the aerodromes and routes used by the private operator are met; and

process any flight crew member reports and take any necessary follow-up action.

the person holds the licence, ratings and medical certificate required by Part IV;

in the case of a pilot-in-command,

in the case of a second-in-command,

the person has received, in respect of the aircraft type that the person will operate, training in the performance of the emergency procedures referred to in subsection 604.169(2) or equivalent training that meets the requirements of subsection 604.140(1), and the validity period of the training has not expired;

the person has successfully completed, in respect of the aircraft type that the person will operate, a competency check that meets the requirements of this section or a competency check or pilot proficiency check that meets the requirements of subsection 604.140(2), and the validity period of the competency check or pilot proficiency check has not expired; and

if the person is required to operate an aircraft above 13,000 feet ASL, the person has received the training set out in section 604.176 or equivalent training that meets the requirements of subsection 604.140(1).

shall have completed, within 30 days before the day on which the competency check is conducted, the training set out in subsection 604.170(1) or equivalent training that meets the requirements of subsection 604.140(1);

shall have been recommended for the competency check by an instructor who provided the person with the training or equivalent training referred to in paragraph (a); and

shall meet the following requirements:

shall be based on the processes, practices and procedures set out in the private operator’s operations manual;

shall consist of the exercises set out in chapters 2 or 3, as the case may be, of the standard entitled Flight Test Guide — Competency Check (Private Operators), published by the Minister;

shall assess the exercises referred to in paragraph (b) in accordance with the marking scale set out in section 1.3 of that standard;

shall assess the competency as satisfactory or unsatisfactory in accordance with sections 1.4 and 1.5 of that standard; and

shall be subject to the retest procedures referred to in section 1.6 of that standard.

holds the licence and ratings required by Part IV to act as pilot-in-command of the aircraft used for the competency check;

holds an instrument rating required by Part IV in respect of the aircraft used for the competency check;

meets one of the following requirements:

is not the instructor who made the recommendation referred to in paragraph 2(b) in respect of the person undergoing the competency check.

has been assigned to conduct the competency check by the private operator;

meets the requirements set out in paragraphs (4)(a) and (b);

does not have a record of conviction for

is at least 21 years old;

has at least 3,000 hours of flight time in an aircraft of the same category as the aircraft that will be used for the competency check, including

has successfully completed, within 24 months before the day on which the person conducts the competency check, training provided by a pilot examiner or by an approved check pilot that includes the following elements:

in the case of a flight instructor, the person holds, in respect of the aircraft type used for the training, the licence and ratings required by Part IV or, in the case of a flight instructor licensed by a contracting state, a licence and ratings equivalent to those required by Part IV;

in the case of a flight simulator instructor, the person holds, or has held, in respect of the aircraft type used for the training, the licence and ratings required by Part IV or, in the case of a flight simulator instructor licensed by a contracting state, a licence and ratings equivalent to those required by Part IV;

if the private operator is authorized under a special authorization to operate an aircraft in IFR flight, the person holds a valid instrument rating in respect of the aircraft type used for the training;

the person has received, in respect of the aircraft type used for the training, training that includes the elements set out in subsection 604.170(1), and the validity period of the training has not expired; and

the person has demonstrated to the private operator knowledge of

the teaching and learning processes;

instructional techniques; and

the student-instructor relationship.

holds a flight dispatcher certificate; and

has received the training set out in subsection 604.180(1) and the validity period of the training has not expired.

each person’s name;

the dates on which the person received training and the name of the instructor who provided the training;

in the case of the operations manager, information on how the operations manager has demonstrated to the private operator knowledge of the elements referred to in paragraph 604.141(1)(b) and the date of that demonstration;

in the case of the chief pilot, information on how the chief pilot has demonstrated to the private operator knowledge of the elements referred to in paragraph 604.142(1)(b) and the date of that demonstration;

in the case of a flight instructor, information on how the flight instructor has demonstrated to the private operator knowledge of the elements referred to in paragraph 604.144(1)(e) and the date of that demonstration;

in the case of a flight crew member,

in the case of an aircraft maintenance engineer (AME), the aircraft maintenance engineer licence number.

retain the records referred to in subsections (1) and (2) for two years after the day on which the records were last updated; and

retain the written examination referred to in subsection (2) for two years after the day on which the examination was given.

the aircraft types operated by the private operator; and

the private operator’s area of operation.

the aircraft types operated by the private operator that are not specified in the air operator certificate; and

the differences, if any, between the areas in which operations are conducted.

the content of the private operator’s operations manual;

the aircraft systems operation and limitations specified in the aircraft flight manual and, if the private operator has established an aircraft operating manual and standard operating procedures, those specified in that manual and in those procedures;

the operation of the aircraft equipment;

the differences, if any, between the equipment, operation and layout of aircraft of the same type;

the standard operating procedures, if any were established by the private operator;

the aircraft performance and limitations;

weight and balance control procedures;

aircraft servicing and ground handling;

the location and operation of emergency equipment;

the actions to be taken in the event of aircraft fire on the ground or in the air;

the actions to be taken in the event of a security-related event;

procedures to avoid Controlled Flight into Terrain (CFIT);

if the flight crew members will be assigned to medical evacuation flights (MEDEVAC), emergency procedures specific to medical evacuations, including the evacuation of patients from aircraft; and

the private operator’s operational control system.

the use of fire extinguishers;

the operation and use of emergency exits;

passenger preparation for an emergency landing or ditching;

emergency evacuation procedures;

if the flight crew members will be assigned to aircraft equipped with life preservers, the donning and inflation of life preservers;

if the flight crew members will be assigned to aircraft equipped with life rafts, the removal of life rafts from the stowage compartment, and the deployment, inflation and boarding of life rafts; and

procedures for dealing with pilot incapacitation.

the low-energy landing regime for that type of aeroplane;

the performance and handling characteristics of the aeroplane and engine in the low-energy regime; and

balked landing procedures for the aeroplane.

aircraft performance during take-off, climb, cruise, holding, descent, landing and diversion;

calculations of the aircraft’s take-off and landing distances and speeds, and the aircraft’s fuel consumption, weight and centre of gravity;

the flight characteristics of the aircraft, including any abnormal characteristics that are applicable to the aircraft, such as dutch roll, buffet boundary onset and aircraft upset;

the effects of airframe and engine icing and the use of de-icing and anti-icing equipment;

flight planning and instrument flight procedures, including

pre-flight checks of the interior and exterior of the aircraft;

the use of aircraft checklists;

aircraft manoeuvres on the ground;

normal, crosswind, noise abatement and maximum performance take-offs and landings;

take-offs and landings on contaminated runways;

rejected take-offs and landings;

steep turns;

approach to a stall and recovery from a stall;

the operation of the Flight Management Computer System (FMCS), Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS), Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS), Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS), Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS) and any other specialized equipment installed in the private operator’s aircraft;

the execution in VMC of one collision avoidance manoeuvre in response to a GPWS or a TAWS warning, if the aircraft is equipped with a GPWS or a TAWS;

the operation of navigation and communication equipment;

the actions to be taken in the event of hydraulic, electrical and other system failures;

the actions to be taken in the event of flight control failures and, in the case of an aircraft with split control capability, briefings on degraded states of operation while in flight and during take-off and landing;

the actions to be taken in the event of aircraft fire on the ground or in the air;

the actions to be taken in the event of engine fire and engine failure while in flight;

the recognition of and recovery from turbulence and windshear during an approach, landing and take-off;

the actions to be taken in the event of an emergency evacuation of passengers and crew;

the actions to be taken in the event of pilot incapacitation while in flight and during take-off and landing;

crew resource management;

if the private operator provides the training using a flight simulator, the performance of one balked landing initiated in the low-energy regime using the same simulator;

in the case of a pressurized aircraft, the actions to be taken in the event of loss of pressurization and emergency descent;

in the case of a three-engine or four-engine aircraft, take-off, landing and flight with the critical engine inoperative or with two other engines inoperative, including driftdown and engine-inoperative performance capabilities; and

in the case of a helicopter,

the content of the private operator’s operations manual;

the provisions of these Regulations, and of related standards, that affect the responsibilities of a flight dispatcher;

flight planning and the private operator’s standard operating procedures;

radiocommunication procedures;

aircraft fuelling procedures;

aircraft surface contamination procedures;

the use of minimum equipment lists;

meteorological conditions, including windshear and aircraft icing, in the private operator’s area of operation;

the private operator’s navigation and instrument approach procedures;

accident and incident reporting;

emergency procedures;

weight and balance control procedures;

pre-flight crew member briefings;

the differences between pilot self-dispatch procedures and co-authority dispatch procedures;

the provision of meteorological information to the flight crew without analysis or interpretation;

foreign regulations, if applicable;

aeronautical information publications applicable to the private operator’s area of operation;

meteorological conditions and their effect on the flight and operation of an aircraft;

the interpretation of meteorological information;

the performance and limitations of the private operator’s aircraft;

air traffic control procedures; and

flight dispatch procedures.

the performance rules set out in section 571.02, and the recording requirements set out in section 571.03 and subsection 605.92(1); and

the private operator’s maintenance control system.

the procedures that are set out in instructions for continued airworthiness provided by the holder of the design approval document, and that are applicable to the types of aircraft operated by the private operator; and

details of the methods used by the private operator to record servicing under paragraph 604.127(k).

the corrective actions that the private operator is required to implement to its training program; and

the date by which the private operator is required to implement the corrective actions to its training program.

the duties and responsibilities of all operational and maintenance personnel, and the hierarchy and chain of command within management;

the organization and operation of the safety management system;

personnel training and qualifications;

record keeping;

the organization and operation of the maintenance control system;

procedures for conducting an operation under a special authorization, if applicable;

the organization and operation of the operational control system;

procedures, if any, relating to minimum equipment lists;

the procedures to follow in normal, abnormal and emergency conditions;

the private operator’s standard operating procedures, if any;

weather restrictions;

flight time limits and flight duty period limits;

controlled rest on the flight deck;

accident and incident response considerations;

procedures for dealing with security events;

aircraft performance limitations; and

the use and protection of records, if any, obtained from flight data recorders and cockpit voice recorders.

a statement of the overall objectives that are to be achieved by the safety management system;

a safety management plan that

a safety oversight program that includes

procedures for

emergency response procedures that

the quality assurance program referred to in section 604.206; and

the process for conducting a review of the safety management system under section 604.207.

subparagraphs (1)(b)(iii) and (v);

clause (1)(c)(iii)(B);

subparagraph (1)(c)(vii);

subparagraph (1)(d)(i); and

subparagraph (1)(e)(ii).

manage the safety management system;

implement the safety management plan referred to in paragraph 604.203(1)(b);

implement the safety oversight program referred to in paragraph 604.203(1)(c);

implement the procedures referred to in paragraph 604.203(1)(d) in respect of all documents relating to the safety management system;

implement the emergency response procedures referred to in paragraph 604.203(1)(e);

implement the quality assurance program referred to in section 604.206;

ensure that any deficiency identified by the quality assurance program is analyzed to determine its root cause and contributing factors;

communicate to the private operator any finding produced by the safety management system in respect of a hazard to aviation safety;

share, with any person with whom the private operator exchanges services, any finding produced by the safety management system that is likely to have an adverse effect on aviation safety; and

analyze any information relating to aviation safety that is received from any person with whom the private operator exchanges services and take appropriate action to mitigate any hazard to aviation safety.

determine what corrective actions are necessary to address that finding, if any, and carry out those actions;

keep a record of any determination made under paragraph (a) and the reason for that determination;

if the operations manager has assigned management functions to another person, communicate any determination made under paragraph (a) to that person; and

notify the private operator of any deficiency that reduces the effectiveness of all or part of the safety management system, and of the corrective action carried out.

the private operator’s effectiveness in conducting an audit under subsection (2); and

the private operator’s ability to carry out its activities effectively and safely.

within 12 months after the day on which the private operator registration document was issued;

subject to paragraph (c), within 12 months after the day on which the previous audit was completed;

within 36 months after the day on which the previous audit was completed, if

following an accident, or incident, that affects aviation safety; and

following the identification, as a result of a review of the safety management system, of a deficiency that reduces the effectiveness of all or part of the safety management system.

checklists of all of the activities carried out by the private operator;

procedures for determining what corrective actions are necessary to eliminate the root cause and contributing factors of each finding of non-compliance with these Regulations;

procedures for monitoring corrective actions to ensure that they are effective;

a system for recording the following information:

procedures for ensuring that each finding resulting from an audit is communicated to the operations manager and to any person who has been assigned management functions respecting the safety management system, and is made available to the private operator.

owing to the size, nature and complexity of the private operator’s operations and activities, it is impractical to assign the duty to a person who is not responsible for carrying out the task or activity;

based on a risk analysis, assigning the duty to a person responsible for carrying out the task or activity will not result in an increased risk to aviation safety; and

the operation of the audit system in relation to the quality assurance program will not be compromised.

within 12 months after the day on which the private operator registration document was issued;

within 12 months after the day on which the previous review was completed; or

following an accident, or incident, that affects aviation safety.

identifying any deficiency in the operation of the safety management system;

investigating and analyzing the root cause and contributing factors of any deficiency identified by the review; and

ensuring that corrective actions are effective and are used on an ongoing basis to improve the safety management system.

owing to the size, nature and complexity of the private operator’s operations and activities, it is impracticable to assign the duty to a person who is not responsible for carrying out the task or activity;

based on a risk analysis, assigning the duty to a person responsible for carrying out the task or activity will not result in an increased risk to aviation safety; and

the integrity of the review of the safety management system will not be compromised.

the aeroplane has 13 to 19 passengers on board;

the aeroplane is operated by a pilot-in-command and a second-in-command;

the passenger cabin is readily accessible from the flight deck; and

the flight crew members are able to exercise supervision over the passengers during flight by visual and aural means.

the number of flight attendants used in the demonstration, and

the number of flight attendants that would have been required in accordance with the ratio set out in subsection (2) at the time of the demonstration.

carried out a successful demonstration of its emergency evacuation procedures for another model of aeroplane in its fleet;

conducted a comparative analysis to ensure that there is no difference in any of the following items between the model of aeroplane for which a successful demonstration has been carried out and the model of aeroplane being introduced:

verified that no changes have been made to any of the items listed in subparagraphs (b)(i) to (iii), in respect of the model of aeroplane for which a successful demonstration has been carried out, between the time of the successful demonstration and the time the comparative analysis is conducted; and

before operating an aeroplane of the model being introduced to carry passengers, made a record — that it keeps for at least five years after the day on which the record is made — of

the location of the flight attendants or their emergency evacuation duties or procedures;

the number, location or type of emergency exits; or

the number, location or type of opening mechanisms for the emergency exits.

the location of the flight attendants or their emergency evacuation duties or procedures;

the number, location or type of emergency exits; or

the number, location or type of opening mechanisms for the emergency exits.

do so without passengers;

do so with flight attendants who have completed the private operator’s training program for that model of aeroplane; and

begin the demonstration using the private operator’s normal procedures, then transition to its emergency procedures.

open 50% of the floor-level emergency exits that are required by the certification basis established in respect of the model of aeroplane;

open 50% of the non-floor-level emergency exits the opening of which is set out as an emergency evacuation duty in the private operator’s operations manual; and

deploy 50% of the escape slides.

use an aeroplane of that model, a life-sized mock-up of that model of aeroplane or a floating device;

assume that the ditching occurs during daylight hours and that all required crew members are available;

ensure that passengers are on board and participate in the demonstration if the private operator’s operations manual requires passengers to assist in the launching of life rafts;

ensure that, after the ditching signal has been received, each evacuee dons a life preserver;

ensure that each life raft is removed from its stowage compartment;

ensure that, as applicable, one life raft or one slide raft is inflated; and

ensure that each evacuee boards the life raft or slide raft and that a crew member assigned to the life raft or slide raft indicates the location of the required survival equipment and describes the use of that equipment.

be representative of the passenger cabin of the model of aeroplane;

contain seats for all of the evacuees participating in the demonstration;

be equipped with the same survival equipment that is installed on the model of aeroplane, including a life preserver for each evacuee participating in the demonstration;

have emergency exits and doors that simulate those on the model of aeroplane; and

have enough wing area installed outside the window emergency exits to simulate the portions of the wings of the model of aeroplane that would be used in a ditching situation.

the flight attendant who leaves the aeroplane remains within the immediate vicinity of the door through which passengers are embarking and carries out safety-related duties for the flight;

the engines used for the propulsion of the aeroplane are not running; and

at least one floor-level exit remains open to provide for passenger egress.

the engines used for the propulsion of the aeroplane are not running;

at least one floor-level exit remains open to provide for passenger egress; and

half of the required number of flight attendants — rounded down to the next lower number in the case of fractions, but never less than one — remain on board.

the engine has a propeller brake;

the propeller brake is set; and

the aeroplane flight manual indicates that the engine may be used as an auxiliary power unit.

if only one flight attendant is on board, he or she remains in the vicinity of the door through which passengers are embarking or disembarking; and

if more than one flight attendant is on board, they are evenly distributed in the passenger cabin and are in the vicinity of the floor-level exits.